Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

Cisco Practice Tests

Question 1 / 55 - Mode : Exam
Your router has learned about the network 172.17.8.0/24 from EIGRP and OSPF. What information will the router populate the routing table with? A. Both the EIGRP and OSPF information; and load balancing will occur B. The OSPF information because it has the lower administrative distance C. The EIGRP information because it has the lower administrative distance D. The EIGRP information because it has the lower metric E. The OSPF information because it has the lower metric Which statements are true about telnet and ssh? (Choose two) A. Only data traffic is encrypted with ssh B. All telnet traffic is sent in plain text C. All ssh traffic is encrypted D. The data is hashed by telnet during transmission E. The username and password is hashed by telnet during authentication F. Only authentication traffic is encrypted with ssh Using the exhibit as a reference, what is a valid key? A. ”lastUpdateTime”: 1572317520439 B. ”CSR1000V” C. ”role” D. ”platformId”: Which option is a valid representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:010F:0001:0000:0000:0000:0ACD? A. 2001:db8:10F:1::ACD B. 2001:db8:010F::1:0ACD C. 2001:db8:01F:01::0ACD D. 2001:0db8:1F:1::ACD E. 21:db8:1F:1:ACD In what security zone are the public web servers located? A. DMZ B. Inside C. Outside D. Campus Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR? A. lldp run B. lldp enable C. lldp transmit D. cdp run E. cdp enable In a split-MAC architecture, real-time functions such as encryption are handled in which of the following network entities? A. An access layer switch B. A distribution layer switch C. A wireless LAN controller D. A lightweight AP Which of the following parameters are necessary when creating a new WLAN with the controller GUI? (Choose two) A. SSID B. VLAN number C. Interface D. BSSID E. IP subnet What is the best definition of a WAN? A. Remote access to resources across a high speed link B. Local access to resources C. Local Internet access D. Core network resources In a reflection attack, the source IP address in the attack packets is spoofed so that it contains which one of the following entities? A. The address of the attacker B. The address of the reflector C. The address of the victim D. The address of the router Which command is used to disable the active technology package for a license? A. no license save B. license clear C. no license boot module D. license boot module E. no license install Which of the following commands displays the enabled OSPFv3 interfaces, along with the adjacent OSPF neighbors connected to them? A. show ipv6 ospf neighbor B. show ipv6 ospf C. show ipv6 route ospf D. show ipv6 ospf interface https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/implementing-a-multiarea-ospf-solution/ospfv3-configuration.html Refer to the exhibit; in which area would R1’s Gi0/0 interface be placed? A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 11 Using the exhibit as a reference, how many JSON objects are there? A. 11 B. 1 C. 2 D. 12 Given the output from a working OSPF router, as seen in the exhibit, how many neighboring routers exist? B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch? (Choose two) A. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1. B. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5. C. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards. D. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses. E. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link. F. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled. Which QoS feature is typically used inbound to a network to limit the amount of traffic that is allowed to flow in? A. Traffic classification B. Traffic shaping C. Traffic limiting D. Traffic policing Suppose you would like to select a method to protect the privacy and integrity of wireless data. Which one of the following methods should you avoid because it has been deprecated? A. TKIP B. CCMP C. GCMP D. EAP Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch? A. 1 through 1001 B. 2 through 1001 C. 1 through 1002 D. 2 through 1005 https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html What is the benefit of using a leased line between two offices for connectivity? A. Reduced Delay and Jitter B. Reduced Cost C. Intranet Reduction in Traffic D. Internet Control What information is returned from the “show spanning-tree vlan vlan_id“ command? (Choose three) A. Interface, role, and cost information B. Root ID information C. Number of switches on the network D. Bridge ID information E. Routing protocol When comparing next-generation IPS to traditional IPS, what additional capabilities can be leveraged to more efficiently block traffic? (Choose three) A. AVC B. Signature-based filtering C. Contextual awareness D. Event impact level You need to configure an IP address on your serial interface. Which command should you use from privileged EXEC mode to access the appropriate configuration mode and set the IP address? A. ip default-gateway B. ip address ip-address subnet-mask C. interface type number D. configure terminal https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/configuring-a-router.html Suppose two APs are located near each other. Which channel use strategy will result in nonoverlapping channels for Wi-Fi use? (Choose two) A. Use 2.4-GHz channel 1 on AP-A and channel 2 on AP-B. B. Use 2.4-GHz channel 1 on AP-A and 5-GHz channel 48 on AP-B. C. Use 5-GHz channel 36 on AP-A and channel 40 on AP-B. D. Use 5-GHz channel 36 on AP-A and channel 37 on AP-B. Which of the following behaviors is applied to a low latency queue in a Cisco router or switch? (Choose two) A. Congestion management B. Shaping C. Policing D. Priority scheduling E. Round robin scheduling Which switch ”show” command is used to check the software and hardware configuration information of the system? A. show version B. show interfaces C. show running-config https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ethernet-lans/starting-a-switch.html Identify the commands required to verify both - the IP addresses of a switch and a host. (Choose two) A. show interface status B. show ip interface brief C. ipconfig /renew D. ipconfig /release E. ipconfig /all https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/lan-connections/starting-a-router.html Of the figures shown, which depicts an accurate Clos Architecture? A. Topology A B. Topology B C. Topology C D. Topology D Which command is used to verify the interfaces that are participating in the RIPv2 routing process? A. show ip rip B. show ip protocols C. show ip route D. show rip interfaces E. show ip interface brief Which cloud service is owned and operated by a third party and allows people from a variety of different companies to request and use its resources? A. Hybrid cloud B. Internet cloud C. Private cloud D. Public cloud Which of the following statements describe a distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two) A. Each router builds its own internal map of the network topology B. Update messages are propagated to all routers running the same routing protocol C. Periodic update messages are sent whether there is a change in the network or not D. Only concerned with how far and in what direction the destination is https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/ip-routing-technologies/dynamic-routing.html What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology? A. path cost B. lowest port MAC address C. VTP revision number D. highest port priority number E. port priority number and MAC address https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/vlans-and-spanning-tree/spanning-tree-operations.html Think about a policing function that is currently working, and also think about a shaping function that is also currently working. That is, the current bit rate of traffic exceeds the respective policing and shaping rates. Which statements are true about these features? (Choose two) A. The policer may or may not be discarding packets. B. The policer is definitely discarding packets. C. The shaper may or may not be queuing packets to slow down the sending rate. D. The shaper is definitely queuing packets to slow down the sending rate. R3 has a static route configured that points toward the service provider. What command could you use to have R3 advertise an OSPFv3 default route to the internal network, regardless of whether R3 had its default static route? A. The decision to advertise a default route depends on the static route always being present on R3. B. The default behavior is to redistribute any default IPv6 routes into OSPFv3, so no action is required. C. Each of the other routers needs a static default route that leads to R3. D. Use the command default-information originate always in interface mode for G1/0 on R3. E. Have R3 use the command default-information originate always in OSPFv3 router configuration mode. What is the purpose of the “logging synchronous“ command? A. It enables synchronous sequence numbering for syslog messages B. It enables password checking on the vty and console lines C. It sets an inactivity timer for the console and vty lines D. It prevents syslog messages from interrupting current commands you are typing in E. It disables timestamps for syslog messages When are VTP messages sent to clients for synchronization while using a VTP server? (Choose two) A. Every five minutes by default B. Every ten minutes by default C. Only when manually triggered D. Any time there is a change What is the field that is used on modern systems that allows an IP packet to be marked with a specific QoS value? A. EXP B. CoS C. DSCP D. Traffic Class Which commands are used to statically assign an IPv6 address to a device using a manual interface ID? (Choose two) A. interface Ethernet0/0 B. ipv4 address 2001:DB8:2222:7272::72/64 C. ipv6 address 2001:0DB8:0:1::/64 eui-64 D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:2222:7272::72/64 What is used to determine the MAC address of a known IPv6 address? A. ARPv6 B. DHCP C. ARP D. DHCPv6 E. Router discovery F. Neighbor discovery Which cloud service model provides access to an application that is built, monitored, and offered by the cloud provider? A. TaaS B. IaaS C. PaaS D. SaaS Which statement is true about the addresses 172.16.0.255/23 and 172.16.1.0/23? A. The address 172.16.0.255/23 is a directed broadcast address B. The addresses are in different subnets C. The address 172.16.1.0/23 is a subnet ID D. The addresses are in the same subnet Which of the following is the static default route for IPv6? A. 0/:: B. FF::/1 C. ::/1 D. ::/0 It is typical for server processors to utilize a technique that allows each physical processing core to be split into a number of virtual cores; this is commonly referred to as __________. A. processor virtualization B. multi-threading C. virtual processing D. processor switching Which Cisco IOS command is used to install a permanent license on a router? A. copy run star B. write mem C. license boot module D. license save E. license install What is the name of the firewall feature that, when used, can maintain a historical database of each connection through a device: Where it was sourced, destined, and which protocol and protocol port it was using? A. Stateless Inspection B. Stateful Inspection C. Network Protocol Analysis D. Protocol State Analysis A user is experiencing a loss of end-to-end connectivity in an IPv4 network. You have verified that the name resolution entry is correct. Now you want to check whether any IP ACLs are set on the interface. Which command should you use to do so? A. show ip access-list B. show traceroute C. show ip route D. show ip interfaces https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-2/troubleshooting-basic-connectivity/acl-issues.html You want to change the VLAN for FastEthernet 0/2. Which command should you use to do so? A. switchport access B. name C. vlan id D. vlan name E. show vlan brief https://www.learncisco.net/courses/icnd-1/medium-size-switched-network-construction/vlans-and-trunk.html Imagine you configured OSPFv2 in a small lab network. Which of the following answers list a condition that could keep the routers in your lab from learning all the routes to all the IPv4 routes in your small lab network? (Choose two) A. An ACL could be blocking router advertisements. B. Two neighboring routers that connect to the same link have been configured with the same OSPF area and with the same IPv4 subnet mask. C. Any physical layer problem that would prevent two neighboring routers from being able to ping each others IPv4 addresses in the subnet that exists between the two routers. D. Two neighboring routers that connect to the same link have been configured with the same OSPF process ID on the router ospf command. You have implemented DAI on a Layer 2 switch in your network. Now you want to monitor the ARP message rates with an average of four received ARP messages a second. Which command(s) would need to be utilized to accomplish this? (Choose two) A. ip arp inspection limit rate 8 burst interval 2 B. ip arp inspection limit rate 4 burst interval 2 C. ip arp inspection limit rate 10 burst interval 5 D. ip arp inspection limit rate 20 burst interval 5 Which command is used to import a static default route into the RIP routing process and have it advertised to other neighboring RIP routers? A. default-information originate B. redistribute static C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 next-hop_ip D. network 0.0.0.0 Which command can be used to help disable multiple ports on a switch at the same time? A. interface range B. default interface C. interface range shutdown D. shutdown range Which is true in a spine-leaf architecture? (Choose two) A. Each leaf switch must connect to every spine switch. B. Each leaf switch must connect to one spine switch. C. Each spine switch must connect to every leaf switch. D. Each spine switch must connect to one leaf switch. What are the results of subnetting a large Class A network? (Choose two) A. Support fewer networks as compared to the original Class A network B. Support more devices in each network as compared to the original Class A network C. Support more networks as compared to the original Class A network D. Support fewer devices in each network as compared to the original Class A network What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three) A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic. B. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure. C. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure. D. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size. E. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size. F. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain. G. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks. https://www.learncisco.net/courses/ccna/part-5-virtual-lans-vlans/vlans-review.html If you want to be alerted when a device configuration differs from the intended configuration, what should you implement? A. Version control B. Centralized configuration C. Configuration drift D. Configuration monitoring

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The CCNA 200-301 is for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions exam. You can use the practice test to check your knowledge and improve your understanding in preparation for the Cisco CCNA certification exam.

The Cisco CCNA 200-301 practice exam tests include questions to test your knowledge and skills related to Cisco networking fundamentals, which helps you pass the actual exam.

The Cisco CCNA exam objectives include Cisco network fundamentals on routers, switches, IP addresses, etc., network access, IP connectivity such as static and dynamic routing protocol, IP services, network security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.

Cisco CCNA 200-301 Practice Test

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